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I am well aware that I have used the term Overself inconsistently and indifferently and that now a fresh definition is imposed upon the work in my new book. Does the cancellation of the earlier definitions render them false? By no means! They are perfectly correct when read in their proper places; their defect is that they are incomplete; they are not representative of the highest truth; they are true in the world of religion, or of mysticism, as the case may be, but not in the world of philosophy.

-- Notebooks Category 22: Inspiration and the Overself > Chapter 3: The Overself's Presence > # 240

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