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If Grace does not exist, why does the Bhagavad Gita contain the statement: "To him whom the Overself chooses, to him does It reveal Itself"? And why did the early Christian Father Clement, whose writings are considered authoritative, state: "It is said the Son will reveal Himself to whom He wishes"? (The Homilies, Vol. xvii, p. 278, Ante-Nicene lib.)

-- Notebooks Category 18: The Reverential Life > Chapter 5 : Grace > # 37